Suppose that we know all about a function `f` and its derivative `f'`. If `f` has an inverse, `g`,
can we use our knowledge of `f` to compute the derivative of `g`? Yes!
If `f` and `g` are inverse functions, then [`g'(x) = 1/(f'(g(x)))`]
In the applet above, we will see a geometric justification for this formula.
Drag the slider through the steps and consider the questions below.