Step 1: If it is true that
tan(f(x)) = xThis is because tan(x) and arctan(x) are inverse functions of each other, and the above equation follows by the definition of inverse functions. Now apply the
Step 2: When you applied the chain rule, you should have gotten,
(1 + tan2(f(x)) )f'(x) = 1assuming you observed the hint in the original text of the problem. But recall now that in step 1 you determined that
Step 3: When you substituted x for tan(f(x)), you should have gotten
(1 + x2)f'(x) = 1Now simply solve for f'(x), and you will be done. When you are,
Step 4: You should have gotten,
1 f'(x) =which is indeed the derivative of1 + x2
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